Notified Disaster    
Asian Disaster Preparedness Centre (ADPC)    
Mettur Dam    
Mako Missile    
Assam Rifles    
Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP)    
Promoting Affordable Cancer Treatment in India    
Listeriosis    
MQ-9B Predator    

1.    Notified Disaster
Why in News?
•    Recently, the Minister of State for the Union Ministry of Science and Technology informed Lok Sabha that the 15th Finance Commission declined to include heatwaves on the notified disaster list.
About Notified Disaster
•    Definition: The Disaster Management Act, 2005, defines a disaster as a "catastrophe, mishap, calamity or grave occurrence" arising from natural or man-made causes that result in substantial loss of life, destruction of property, or damage to the environment.
•    Current Notified Disasters: There are 12 disasters classified as Notified Disasters:
o    Cyclone
o    Drought
o    Earthquake
o    Fire
o    Flood
o    Tsunami
o    Hailstorm
o    Landslide
o    Avalanche
o    Cloud Burst
o    Pest Attack
o    Frost and Cold Wave
•    Eligibility: These disasters are eligible for assistance from the National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF) and State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF).
What are Heat Waves?

•    Criteria for Declaration: The basic criteria for IMD (India Meteorological Department) to declare a heatwave are:
o    Temperature exceeds 40°C in the plains.
o    Temperature exceeds 37°C in coastal areas.
o    Temperature exceeds 30°C in the hills.
•    These temperature values are the thresholds established by the IMD for declaring heatwaves in India.
Key Facts about National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)
•    Role: The NDMA plays a crucial role in laying down policies, plans, and guidelines for disaster management in India.
•    Objective: Promotes a national resolve to mitigate the damage and destruction caused by natural and man-made disasters through sustained and collective efforts.
Prelims Question
Question: With reference to the National Disaster Response Fund/State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF), consider the following statements:
1.    Heatwaves are included in the list of Notified Disasters eligible for SDRF assistance.
2.    The Disaster Management Act, 2005 defines a disaster as arising from natural or man-made causes resulting in substantial loss of life or property.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A)    1 only
B)    2 only
C)    Both 1 and 2
D)    Neither 1 nor 2 Answer: B) 2 only Mains Question

Question: Discuss the importance of including heatwaves as a notified disaster in the context of India's disaster management framework. How can this inclusion benefit disaster preparedness and response efforts?

2. Asian Disaster Preparedness Centre (ADPC)
Why in News?
•    Recently, India has taken over as the Chair of the Asian Disaster Preparedness Centre (ADPC) for 2024-25.
About ADPC
•    Establishment: 1986 as an autonomous international organization.
•    Purpose: Cooperation in and implementation of disaster risk reduction and building climate resilience in Asia and the Pacific region.
•    Vision: "Safer communities and sustainable development through disaster risk reduction."
•    Geographical Remit: Asia and the Pacific.
Member Countries
•    India, Bangladesh, Cambodia, China, Nepal, Pakistan, Philippines, Sri Lanka, and Thailand are the founding members.
Governance
•    Organs of ADPC:
o    Board of Trustees: Governing body.
o    Executive Committee: Oversees the implementation of policies and strategies.
o    Advisory Council: Provides expert advice.
o    Regional Consultative Committee (RCC): Facilitates regional cooperation and consultative processes.
•    Charter: Signed by nine founding member countries, effective in 2018 through ratification by all founding members.

•    Status: As of January 2020, ADPC operates as an autonomous international organization governed by the Board of Trustees.
Headquarters
•    Location: Bangkok, Thailand.
•    Operational Structure: Includes sub-centers in member countries.
Prelims Question
Question: With reference to the Asian Disaster Preparedness Centre (ADPC), consider the following statements:
1.    ADPC was established in 2006 as an autonomous international organization.
2.    India is one of the founding members of ADPC.
3.    ADPC's headquarters is located in Kathmandu, Nepal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A)    1 and 2 only
B)    2 only
C)    2 and 3 only
D)    1, 2, and 3 Answer: B) 2 only Mains Question
Question: Discuss the role of the Asian Disaster Preparedness Centre (ADPC) in enhancing disaster risk reduction and building climate resilience in Asia and the Pacific region. How does India's chairmanship for 2024-25 contribute to these goals?

3. Mettur Dam
Why in News?
•    A warning has been issued to people residing in low-lying areas of the Mettur Dam due to increased inflow into the dam.
About Mettur Dam

•    Construction: Built in 1934, it is one of the largest dams in India.
•    Location: Mettur, District Salem, Tamil Nadu.
•    Geographical Setting: Constructed in a gorge where the Kaveri River enters the plains.
Features:
•    Type: Masonry gravity dam.
•    Dimensions: Length of 1700 meters with a maximum level of 120 feet and a capacity of 93.4 TMC ft.
•    Reservoir: Creates the Stanley Reservoir.
•    Power Plant: The Mettur hydroelectric and thermal power plant, set at the foot of the dam in 1937, with a hydropower generation capacity of 32 MW.
•    Additional Features:
o    A park adjoining the dam with lawns and fountains.
o    The Muniappan/Aiyanar statue in the vicinity.
•    Irrigation: Provides irrigation facilities to parts of Salem, Erode, Namakkal, Karur, Tiruchirappalli, and Thanjavur districts, covering 271,000 acres (110,000 ha) of farmland.
Key Facts about Kaveri River:
Course:
•    Origin: Rises on Brahmagiri Hill of the Western Ghats in southwestern Karnataka, at an elevation of 1,341 meters (4,400 feet) above mean sea level.
•    Flow: Flows south and east through Karnataka and Tamil Nadu, across the southeastern lowlands, and finally empties into the Bay of Bengal through two principal mouths.
•    Length: The total length of the river from origin to outfall is 800 km.

•    Basin: Bounded by the Western Ghats on the west, the Eastern Ghats on the east and south, and by ridges separating it from the Krishna basin and Pennar basin on the north.
•    Area: The Cauvery basin extends over Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Kerala, and the Union Territory of Puducherry, draining an area of 81,155 sq km.
Tributaries:
•    Left Tributaries: Harangi, Hemavati, Shimsha, Arkavati.
•    Right Tributaries: Lakshmantirtha, Kabbani, Suvarnavati, Bhavani, Noyil, Amaravati.
Dams:
•    Major Dams: Krishna Raja Sagara Dam, Mettur Dam, and Banasura Sagar Dam on the Kabini River (a tributary of the Kaveri River).
Prelims Question
Question: With reference to the Mettur Dam, consider the following statements:
1.    Mettur Dam was constructed in 1934 and is one of the largest dams in India.
2.    The Mettur Dam is located at the confluence of the Kaveri River and the Krishna River.
3.    The dam creates the Stanley Reservoir and provides irrigation to several districts in Tamil Nadu.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A)    1 and 2 only
B)    1 and 3 only
C)    2 and 3 only
D)    1, 2, and 3
Answer: B) 1 and 3 only
Mains Question

Question: Discuss the significance of the Mettur Dam for the region's agriculture and power generation. How does the management of inflows and outflows impact the local population and agricultural practices?

4.    Mako Missile
Why in News?
•    The US Navy, Navy SEAL commandos, and the US Air Force are set to install the Mako missile in all their military aircraft.
About Mako Missile
•    Type: Air-launched hypersonic multi-mission missile.
•    Developer: Lockheed Martin, an American aerospace and defense manufacturer.
•    Unique Feature: It will be the world’s first hypersonic weapon that can be fired from the internal weapons bay of fifth-generation stealth fighter jets like the F-35 and the F-22 Raptor.
•    Mission Capability: Can be used for a wide range of missions, including targets at sea, in the air, and on land.
Features
•    Speed and Maneuverability: Named after the fastest shark in the seas, the Mako missile can achieve speeds over Mach 5 with high maneuverability, making it difficult to intercept.
•    Penetration Capability: Can penetrate advanced air-defense systems to engage high- value targets at or below hypersonic speeds, depending on mission requirements.
•    Digital Engineering: Represents one of Lockheed Martin’s first generation of missiles designed within an entirely “digital engineering ecosystem.”
•    Specifications:
o    Weight: Close to 590 kg.
o    Diameter: 13 inches.

o    Length: Approximately 4 meters.
Hypersonic Missiles
•    Definition: A weapon system that flies at least at the speed of Mach 5 (five times the speed of sound) and is maneuverable.
•    Characteristics: Extremely fast and far harder for surface-to-air missile defense systems to target.
Prelims Question
Question: With reference to the Mako missile, consider the following statements:
1.    The Mako missile is the world's first hypersonic weapon that can be fired from the internal weapons bay of fifth-generation stealth fighter jets.
2.    It was developed by Boeing, an American aerospace and defense manufacturer.
3.    The Mako missile can achieve speeds over Mach 5 with high maneuverability. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A)    1 and 2 only
B)    2 and 3 only
C)    1 and 3 only
D)    1, 2, and 3
Answer: C) 1 and 3 only
Mains Question
Question: Discuss the strategic significance of hypersonic missiles like the Mako missile for modern military forces. How do their speed and maneuverability impact current air-defense systems and military tactics?

5. Assam Rifles
Why in News?
•    A forum of several influential organizations representing the Meitei community in conflict-hit Manipur recently issued a call to boycott Assam Rifles.

About Assam Rifles
•    Central Armed Police Force (CAPF): One of the six CAPFs in India.
•    Dual Control Structure:
o    Administrative Control: Ministry of Home Affairs.
o    Operational Control: Indian Army under the Ministry of Defence.
•    Roles:
o    Maintaining internal security in the Northeastern region.
o    Guarding the Indo-Myanmar Border.

History
•    Oldest Paramilitary Force: Established in 1835 as a militia called the ‘Cachar Levy’.
•    Initial Purpose: Formed to protect British tea estates and settlements against tribal raids with approximately 750 men.
•    Evolution: Expanded and renamed as Assam Military Police Battalion and later as Assam Rifles.
•    Post-Independence Role: Evolved to include conventional combat roles (Sino-India War 1962), participation in Indian Peace Keeping Force (IPKF) to Sri Lanka in 1987 (Op Pawan), and peacekeeping in the Northeastern areas.
Structure and Command
•    Growth: Expanded from 17 battalions in 1960 to 46 battalions at present.
•    Nickname: Known as ‘Friends of the North East People’.
•    Awards: The highest awarded and decorated paramilitary force in both pre- and post-independent India.
•    Command: Led by an officer of the rank of Lieutenant General of the Army.
•    Headquarters: The highest headquarters (HQ Directorate General of Assam Rifles) is located in Shillong, while the HQs of all other Central Para Military Forces are in Delhi.
Prelims Question

Question: With reference to the Assam Rifles, consider the following statements:
1.    Assam Rifles is the only paramilitary force in India with a dual control structure.
2.    The operational control of Assam Rifles is under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
3.    Assam Rifles has a primary role of maintaining internal security in the Northeastern region and guarding the Indo-Myanmar Border.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A)    1 and 2 only
B)    2 and 3 only
C)    1 and 3 only
D)    1, 2, and 3
Answer: C) 1 and 3 only
Mains Question
Question: Discuss the unique dual control structure of the Assam Rifles and its implications for the force's operational effectiveness. How has the role of Assam Rifles evolved over the years in maintaining internal security and border management in the Northeastern region?

6. Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP)
Why in News?
•    A total of 1,862 disease outbreaks were reported to the Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP) last year, with the highest number being reported from Kerala, as informed to the Lok Sabha recently.
About IDSP:
•    Nature: A decentralized, state-based surveillance programme in India.
•    Launch: November 2004 with assistance from the World Bank by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India.
•    Objectives:

o    Strengthen and maintain a decentralized, laboratory-based IT-enabled disease surveillance system for epidemic-prone diseases.
o    Monitor disease trends.
o    Detect and respond to outbreaks in the early rising phase through trained Rapid Response Teams (RRTs).
Programme Components:
1.    Integration and Decentralization:
o    Establishment of surveillance units at the Centre, State, and District levels.
2.    Human Resource Development:
o    Training of State Surveillance Officers, District Surveillance Officers, RRT, and other medical and paramedical staff on principles of disease surveillance.
3.    Information Communication Technology (ICT):
o    Use of ICT for collection, collation, compilation, analysis, and dissemination of data.
4.    Public Health Laboratories:
o    Strengthening of public health laboratories.
5.    Intersectoral Coordination:
o    Coordination for zoonotic diseases.
Data Management:
•    Collection Frequency: Data is collected on epidemic-prone diseases on a weekly basis (Monday–Sunday).
•    Reporting Formats:
o    "S" (Suspected cases)
o    "P" (Presumptive cases)
o    "L" (Laboratory-confirmed cases)
•    Data Providers: Health Workers, Clinicians, and Laboratory staff.

•    Outbreak Reporting: IDSP receives disease outbreak reports from the States/UTs on a weekly basis. Even NIL weekly reporting is mandated.
•    Disease Trends and Seasonality: Weekly data provides information on disease trends and seasonality.
•    Investigation and Control: Rising trends of illnesses are investigated by RRTs to diagnose and control outbreaks.
•    Data Analysis: Actions are undertaken by respective State/District Surveillance Units.
Prelims Question
Question: With reference to the Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP), consider the following statements:
1.    IDSP is a state-based surveillance programme in India launched with World Bank assistance.
2.    Data is collected on epidemic-prone diseases on a monthly basis under IDSP.
3.    The programme involves the use of Information Communication Technology for data management.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A)    1 and 2 only
B)    1 and 3 only
C)    2 and 3 only
D)    1, 2, and 3
Answer: B) 1 and 3 only
Mains Question
Question: Discuss the role of the Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP) in managing and controlling disease outbreaks in India. How does the use of ICT and decentralization enhance the effectiveness of the programme?

7. Promoting Affordable Cancer Treatment in India
Why in News?
•    In her Budget 2024-25 speech, the Finance Minister announced customs duty exemptions on three targeted cancer drugs: trastuzumab deruxtecan, osimertinib, and durvalumab. This exemption, which previously was around 10%, aims to make these drugs more accessible to Indian patients and reduce the overall cost of cancer therapies.
Cancer Profile in India
•    Definition: Cancer is a disease where some of the body’s cells grow uncontrollably and spread to other parts of the body. When cells grow old or become damaged, they die, and new cells take their place. Sometimes, this orderly process breaks down, causing abnormal or damaged cells to grow and multiply, potentially forming tumors.
•    Statistics:
o    An estimated 14.6 lakh new cancer cases were detected in 2022, up from 14.2 lakh in 2021 and 13.9 lakh in 2020 (National Cancer Registry).
o    The number of deaths due to cancer increased to an estimated 8.08 lakh in 2022, up from 7.9 lakh in 2021 and 7.7 lakh in 2020.
o    According to the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR), 1 in 9 Indians will develop cancer during their lifetime.
o    Incidence is higher among women (103.6 per 100,000 population in 2020) compared to men (94.1 per 100,000 population in 2020).
o    Common cancers among men: lung, mouth, prostate, tongue, and stomach.
o    Common cancers among women: breast, cervix, ovary, uterus, and lung.
Targeted Cancer Therapies

•    Definition: Targeted cancer drugs are designed to attack only cancer cells, leaving normal cells unaffected. They target specific genetic changes in cancer cells that help them grow, divide, and spread.
•    Advantages: Better outcomes and fewer side effects compared to traditional chemotherapy drugs that indiscriminately target all cells.
•    Immunotherapy: Trains the patient’s immune system to find and attack cancer cells.
About the 3 Custom Duty Exempted Targeted Cancer Drugs
1.    Trastuzumab Deruxtecan:
o    Development: Developed by Daiichi Sankyo and marketed by AstraZeneca as Enhertu.
o    Usage: Second-line treatment for breast cancers, approved in 2019. It costs around Rs 1.6 lakh per vial and is used when traditional therapies have failed.
o    Approval: In 2024, it became the first drug in its class to receive “tissue- agnostic approval” from the US FDA, meaning it can be used to treat any cancer with HER-2 receptor regardless of origin.
2.    Osimertinib:
o    Usage: Most commonly used of the three cancer drugs in India, marketed as Tagrisso by AstraZeneca.
o    Cost: Rs 5 lakh per strip of ten pills, taken every day.
o    Indication: Used to treat lung cancers.
3.    Durvalumab:
o    Usage: An immunotherapy treatment for certain lung cancers, biliary tract cancers, bladder cancer, and liver cancer.
o    Cost: Sold as Imfinzi, durvalumab costs around Rs 1.5 lakh for every 10ml vial.
Prelims Question
Question: With reference to the recent Budget 2024-25 announcement on cancer drugs, consider the following statements:

1.    The customs duty exemption applies to trastuzumab deruxtecan, osimertinib, and durvalumab.
2.    All three drugs are traditional chemotherapy agents.
3.    Osimertinib is used to treat lung cancers and is quite expensive. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A)    1 and 2 only
B)    1 and 3 only
C)    2 and 3 only
D)    1, 2, and 3
Answer: B) 1 and 3 only
Mains Question
Question: Discuss the impact of customs duty exemptions on targeted cancer drugs in the context of promoting affordable healthcare in India. How do targeted therapies compare with traditional chemotherapy in terms of efficacy and side effects?

8. Listeriosis
Context
•    Two separate outbreaks of listeria, a bacterium which can contaminate food, have been reported in the United States and Canada in recent weeks.
About Listeria
•    Definition: Listeria or Listeria monocytogenes is a type of bacterium found in soil, vegetation, water, sewage, and even the feces of animals and humans.
•    Infection: Listeria-contaminated food can lead to an infection called listeriosis.
•    High-Risk Foods: Some foods are more likely to have listeria, including milk, raw sprouts, deli meats and hot dogs, soft cheeses, and smoked seafood.
Symptoms

•    General Symptoms: Vomiting, nausea, cramps, severe headache, constipation, and fever.
•    Latency: The bacteria can be present in the infected person’s system for up to two months before symptoms appear, making it difficult to establish the connection between the consumed food and the infection.
Vulnerable Populations
•    High-Risk Groups: People with compromised immune systems, pregnant women and their offspring, and the elderly (aged 65 and above).
•    Impact on Elderly: The US outbreak has a median age of 75. Listeria can result in hospitalization and even death for the immunocompromised and the elderly.
•    Impact on Pregnant Women: According to the CDC, pregnant women are 10 times more likely to develop a listeria infection, risking pregnancy loss, premature birth, or life-threatening infection in the newborn.
Treatment
•    Treatment Protocol: Depends on the extent of the infection.
•    Antibiotics: May be required, similar to the treatment for a routine stomach infection.
Prelims Question
Question: With reference to listeriosis, consider the following statements:
1.    Listeria monocytogenes can be found in soil, water, and feces of animals and humans.
2.    Most people who ingest listeria-infected food immediately show symptoms.
3.    Pregnant women are at a higher risk of developing listeria infection compared to the general population.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A)    1 and 2 only
B)    1 and 3 only
C)    2 and 3 only
D)    1, 2, and 3
Answer: B) 1 and 3 only
Mains Question
Question: Discuss the public health implications of listeria outbreaks and the measures that can be taken to prevent such occurrences. How does listeriosis affect different population groups, particularly the elderly and pregnant women?

9. MQ-9B Predator
News:
•    India will be acquiring MQ-9B Predator drones from the United States, which will be stationed in Tamil Nadu and Uttar Pradesh.
About MQ-9B Predator:
•    Type: High-altitude, long-endurance armed Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV).
•    Development: Variant of the MQ-9 "Reaper" developed by General Atomics Aeronautical Systems (GA-ASI).
•    Primary Use: Developed primarily for the United States Air Force (USAF).
•    Roles: Surveillance, intelligence gathering, and airstrikes.
•    Variants: SkyGuardian and SeaGuardian. The Indian Navy has been operating the SeaGuardian variant since 2020.
Features:
•    Payload: Can carry up to 5,670 kg with a fuel capacity of 2,721 kg.
•    Altitude and Speed: Operates at altitudes exceeding 40,000 feet with a top speed of 275 mph (442 km/h).
•    Stealth: Can fly as close as 250 meters from the ground without being detected unless spotted.

•    Endurance: Maximum endurance of 40 hours, providing a reliable platform for prolonged surveillance.
•    Armament: Armed with strike missiles, including the capability to carry four Hellfire missiles and approximately 450 kg of bombs. This enables high-precision engagement of enemy targets.
•    Roles: Suitable for land and maritime surveillance, anti-submarine warfare, anti- surface warfare, electronic warfare, and expeditionary missions.
•    Operational Flexibility: Capable of automatic take-offs and landings.
•    Integration: Can safely integrate into civil airspace, providing real-time situational awareness for joint forces and civil authorities in the maritime domain, day or night.
Prelims Question
Question: With reference to the MQ-9B Predator drone, consider the following statements:
1.    The MQ-9B Predator is capable of both remotely controlled and autonomous flight operations.
2.    It is developed by Lockheed Martin for the United States Air Force.
3.    The drone has a maximum endurance of 20 hours.
4.    The Indian Navy has been operating the SeaGuardian variant since 2020. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A)    1 and 2 only
B)    1 and 4 only
C)    2 and 3 only
D)    1, 3, and 4 only Answer: B) 1 and 4 only Mains Question
Question: Discuss the strategic significance of the MQ-9B Predator drones for India's defense capabilities. How do these drones enhance India's surveillance, intelligence gathering, and combat operations in various domains?